A leasehold property is about to be assigned by the current lessees to a buyer. If the buyer is not particular about obtaining the consent or "No Objection" from the LESSOR, is it still necessary to for the Lessees to obtain the consent of the Lessor to the assignment before it is effected?
What will be the effect of failure to obtain such consent? Will it invalidate the assignment or weaken it in any way?
Can the Lessor file suit against the assignment?
