party no. 1 was interested in a class II land. hence, party no. 1 purchased aforesaid land by only executing general power of attorney (with clasue of sell to himself / other after conversion of land into class I). After converting class II land into class I party no. 1 made sale deed in his name by himself (or say being a GPA holder). Is party no. 1 legal ower of said property now. If yes, then please provide related judgements........... urgently needed in my case.