Hello Experts,
My mother and father bought a property together a few years ago, my father passed away a year ago. We have changed the property tax and current bills in my mother's name. I heard that after the mutation of property tax my mother will become the sole owner of that property, is it true? If so, does the Sub-registrar allow either a sale deed or gift deed if my mother decides either to sell or gift the property?
I appreciate your comments.