As Hindu successions act define, If a male who had self-acquired property, died without manage his property to his legal heirs, then property goes to equally to his legal heirs expect his daughter who married before 1994. her share will be only, divided share of hers Father. So this law is also applicable to woman (mother of that daughter) if her mother had self-acquired property ....
To Elaborate this query I put one example.....
If Hindu Male (Ramesh) died, and Son 1(ram), Son 2(sham), Daughter1 (Sima), Widow (jaya) those are only legal heirs of Deceased Ramesh,
Then Firstly property will distributed in all sons and only widow, and deceased (not to daughter due to her marriage was done before 1994), and then deceased share will again distributed among sons, widow and to Daughter
So this rule is also applicable for woman self-acquired property …. Means if If Hindu Female (Rohini) died, and Son 1(rahul), Son 2(suresh), Daughter1 (rima), Husband (Mahesh) those are only legal heirs of Deceased Rohini who had her self acquired property, then
Then Above law should also applicable to Daughter No. 1 (rima) ??????