Originally posted by : Akash Patil |
|
HI, Want to know, if some "X" person has applyed to sale deed 20years back and got it as owener of the property and "Y" person comes and says include my name as 50% ower of the property.. is it possible to do ,if yes how....? is there any procedures to creat sale deed again with 50% owner "X" and 50% owner as "Y" if No, what alternative can be sujested and at what cost...? |
|
@ Akash Patil,
There is no provision / law to apply for a sale deed as stated by you.
What was your father doing for the last 20 years ?
If your father became owner, what is the issue till this time ?
When Y came to become owner of 50% share of property what document was executed by your father ?
Your question as to your father want to become owner of full property again, it depends upon the document executed by your father to include Y as owner of 50%, which is prima facie a vague and fabricated story to make it unbelievable.
Last question is again vague.