Property law ancestral property
Rajaraman.A.K
(Querist) 13 April 2011
This query is : Resolved
My grandfather sold a piece of ancestral property to my maternal uncle. Since my maternal uncle did not have any inheritance, he executed a deed of settlement in favour of my father. My father has sold the property acquired through my maternal uncle as his self acquired property.
My query is whether the said ancestral property transferred by maternal uncle to my father through a deed of settlement can still be ancestral property or can my father sell the property to any one as if it is self acquired property?
can i claim my share in spite of the deed of settlement?
Naresh Kudal
(Expert) 13 April 2011
did your father sell more then his share in property?
R.Ramachandran
(Expert) 14 April 2011
The property can no more be treated as 'ancestral property'. Therefore the actionof your father in having sold the property as his self-acquired property cannot be questioned.
Rajaraman.A.K
(Querist) 14 April 2011
This is to Naresh. Thank Your Naresh Ji for your reply. Yes my father sold including my share ( i don't know whether i could call it as my share). Please clarify me.
R.venkatesh Naidu
(Expert) 15 April 2011
if the property was purchased by your father from his own income, it is his self acquired property. you cannot claim share in it. But your father purchased same property from your family income it is trated as ancestral property. you can claim your share. becuase you are an share holder. your father can sell his share only.
