Hello all.
My wife had taken a loan from a bank to buy some machinery, with me as a guarantor. In the meantime, due to some reasons we divorced. She sold that machines without clearing the loan. Now, the bank is asking me to repay,as she has not paid anything since many months.
My query is that after divorce . am I still a party to that loan? Since I had nothing to do with the machines, and the money rec'd after their sale, why she I pay?
Thanks in advance.
