Adverse possession?

One can be declared owner by adverse possession only when his possession is adverse to the real owner by open declaration and accepted by the real owner. Despite the fact of knowing if he did not choose to go in court of law for 12 years , the later would be treated as owner by adverse possession. The possession should be hostile , adverse and open  to the real owner. If it is permissive possession or not hostile it cannot be treated as title by adverse possession.

I do agree with Rajat Sir

Bindal Sir, Thank you for your invaluable reply.

What I understood from your response is that, If the real owner is not aware of his title over the land, then the possession of the possessor cannot be said to be hostile or adverse. (Correct me if I misunderstood it.).... But, in the same circumstances, how can the possession of Mr.A be treated as permissive possession when the real owner himself has no knowledge of his title?

Is there any way Mr.A can incorporate his name to Record of Rights on the basis of such possession?