i have a question... and, i am not a lawyer, so, i could be totally wrong, but there are so many lawyers here, i am sure they will help me understand this better.
it seems to me that a settlement arrived at, at the mediation centre after a 498A has been filed, in some way trivialises the whole issue. we are then saying that any wife can file a 498A, and then of the husband can pay her the money she demands, or the amount the mediation centre convinces her to agree to, then the FIR is quashed.
my question is - a 498A is a criminal case, where those implicated are accused of harassing the wife; how can payment of money be compensation to a criminal offence? if the in-laws or the husband have allegedly tortured the wife, they should be tried and punished if found guilty... similary, if the wife is found to have filed a false 498A and if she has falsely implicated her husband and in-laws, then she should be tried under some law on charges of falsely implicating someone or defamation. why is it all about money?