I have inherited a house from my father who died in 1980s. My father had acquired the house on his own in 1950s (self acquired). He left the property to me through a will. Now I want to prepare a will for this property. I have one son and one daughter. My daughter is married and is very well off. For this reason I want to leave this house to my son who is in more need of it.
I am not sure if this house is regarded as a self acquired property or it is treated as ancestral property. Am I able to prepare a will for this house or do my children has a legal claim on this property. I have received advice on the definition of ancestral and self acquired. But I want to confirm this advice, As per this definition I should be able to leave a will for this house since it qualifies as self acquired. Please see definitions that have been given to me below: Ancestral or Hindu Copacenary property as has been defined stands for any property acquired by the Hindu great grand father, passed that undivided property down the next three generations up to the present generation of great grand son/daughter. In short this property should be four generation old, secondly this should not have been divided by the users in the joint Hindu family as once a division of the property such as this asked by any of the Copacenar the share or portion which each Copacenar gets after the division becomes his or her Self Acquired property. Self acquired property is any property purchased by an individual from his resources or any property he acquired as a part of division of any Ancestral/Copacenary property or acquired as a legal heir or by any Testamentary document such as 'Will' etc. Please advice on the right course of action. Thank you
