I had an ancestral property by year 2003. However, my grandfather divided amongst all his children's which includes my father as well as all of my paternal uncle's (chacha).
Now, at this point of time my father is willing/ looking forward to sell the property i.e. the share he got, while I'm interested to retain the same.
Now, the doubt that is going through my mind is whether the share that my father recieved is still an or has it become my father's personal property after the partition.
Please do suggest me if I can still claim my share on the same or should I proceed to put a hold upon the sale of the property?
