Father wrote will of one property dividing in 2 half among two of his sons and clearly mentioning that my daughter's are married now and have no claim in property. That property due to some reasons was sold by consent of two willed sons of his and bought new registered by father in his own name. Father died in 1997 , leaving no will as such for the new property. Now,
1) Can the daughters claim share in this property after 21 years ?
2) Would the last will intention clearly mentioning my daughters cannot claim anything in property a valid intention?
3) Do the daughters need to be informed in this case to get their sign done for formalities to change the registry in the two son's name , or can the son's directly approach registry's office ??
If the will was specifically for the previous property and the detail of poperty is mentioned in the will then you cannot claim that to be effective for other property.
However the if the will mentions that daughters won't have any share for the reason being married may bar them from claiming their share.
