Dear all
My maternal grandfather died in 2000. For the next 12 years my grandma and mentally unwell aunt were looked after by my married aunt and her husband. who moved in with them, since none of my well-settled uncles volunteered to help. Now, after my grandma's death in 2012, the uncles have come up with a 'will' written by my grandpa stating the property be distributed amongst his sons and nothing should be given to his daughters.
We think that this will was doctored as it contains descripttion of the house as it was in the 1960s and innumerable changes were done in the meantime by my grandpa until his death, e.g. a store room converted into kitchen, an open verandah covered to make a room etc. But, in the will, he describes them as they were in the 1960s and 70s when my mom and aunt were unmarried. He also states in the will that his daughters are happily married and well settled , so nothing be given to them. That was also not true.
1. My first question is that he signs off the will in 1996, while the changes had been made in 1960s and 1970s. Does this fact make the will invalid?
2. One of my uncles, now living in a part of the property, has started demolishing a structure which was built in the 1970s. Can he be stopped from making these changes until the case is decided?
Please reply asap, thanks a lot!
