I was divorced by deed of divorce by mutual consent 30 years ago. It was mentioned in the deed that under 29(2) it was customary for such divorce, and either of us were free to remarry. Three years after this my first husband filed a suit for decree, contesting the validity of the deed, and my remarriage, though he was the first respondent in the deed. I did not contest, as I had got remarried with the total belief that i was free for remarriage. My second husband also believed in the wordings of the deed. The main reason for my first husband's case was to avoid any responsibility to my children's education/future. My questions are : 1) does my remarriage become valid, as there is a deed of divorce in hand, but this is dated later than the date of my remarriage. 2) If not, how do I validate my remarriage, the procedure therefor etc.? Where do I get to learn more about similar cases?? This is from a woman who faced harrassment since 20, found soul-mate, with whose help I have brought up my children. Please help me to iron out the situation. Thanks.