Dattatreya (Proprietor) 21 January 2018
Adv. Deepak (Advocate) 21 January 2018
R.Ramachandran (Advocate) 22 January 2018
The document in the hand of the seller will show how he acquired the poperty. From that it can be determined it is self acquired or not.
In any case, why don';t you consult a lawyer in your area by showing the photocopy of the document available with the seller?
Dattatreya (Proprietor) 22 January 2018
R.Ramachandran (Advocate) 22 January 2018
Dear Dattatreya,
When I said "The document in the hand of the seller will show how he acquired the poperty", all I meant was that whether he acquired the property from third parties; or he got it through partition; or got it under any Settlement etc.
From your reply it appears that the present owner has purchased the property from some third party. In that case, it can be safely assumed that it is his private self-acquired property. Therefore, there is no need for the consent/signature of any of his children. In the sale deed, better insert appropriate Indemnity clause so that in case of any problem in future, the seller should indemnify you.
Dattatreya (Proprietor) 22 January 2018
Dattatreya (Proprietor) 22 January 2018
P. Venu (Advocate) 22 January 2018
Prima facie, the property is self-earned; the father has the absolute right to dispose it at his discretion.
TGK REDDI 23 January 2018
Self-occupied property or self-acquired property? If it is self-occupied property, please clarify what self-occupation is.
Dr. MPS RAMANI Ph.D.[Tech.] (Scientist/Engineer) 23 March 2018
This is an immovable property, not an intellectual property. This query should have been elsewhere.