Dear Sir/Madam,
My father possess some ancestral (more than 10 generations of inheritance) agricultural land, but only his share in the total land is defined (not exact piece of his land share identified) as per government revenue department. In reality my fathers and uncles have partitioned the ancestral land and signed on plain paper (don’t know its legal value) and each one using his own portioned share for agricultural purpose.
- Does partition on plain paper signed by shareholders will be considered as legal partition
- I read somewhere that divided/ partitioned ancestral property become self-acquired in hand of shareholder. What exactly it means. Does partition in which only share in total property is defined will be termed as “partition” to be converted into self-acquired.
3. Does my father share in the property will be considered as ancestral or self-acquired after partition. If above mentioned partition was not legal partition, then can my father in future, sign partitioned deed with uncles to convert it into self-acquired. If such “partition deed” happen in future, will my father be bound to give my share in ancestral property or they can divide the ancestral property among them and make changes in government revenue record accordingly.
4. If it will be considered as “self-acquired” for my father, can he Will it to my sister and exclude me in that property, which is/was basically ancestral before partition. If yes then, would it be “self-acquired” in hand of my sister?
