there is an 1 acre land which is owned by 2 people with equal sharing,though the property is nt defined?can owner1 sell it for his immediate purpose?and which law is involved in this?
snata sarisma (student) 29 June 2012
there is an 1 acre land which is owned by 2 people with equal sharing,though the property is nt defined?can owner1 sell it for his immediate purpose?and which law is involved in this?
shivendra sachan (advocate) 29 June 2012
Rajeev Kumar (Lawyer/Advocate) 29 June 2012
Saransh (Executive) 29 June 2012
© 2025 LAWyersclubindia.com. Let us grow stronger by mutual exchange of knowledge.
