Hi,
The questions below relate to a male having OCD and if he does not disclose it before marriage
1. If annulment is as good as marriage not happened, why should alimony be applicable for hiding Something like OCD before marriage?
2. Even if you disclose to prospective alliance, what form of communication will be considered as not hiding? Will e-mail communication be sufficient? Even if they agree verbally or by e-mail, if they refute (the girls' side) it after marriage, will court accept their argument or consider the boy's argument that it was told? Will e-mail be enough - obviously nobody is going to give a written/signed document of any kind?
3. If the boy has indeed tried disclosing to many alliances without any success and then only resorted to marrying without disclosing, will the court give some consideration to that?Obviously this last resort is taken due to probably no choice left. Honesty does not often help in society and there is always the social stigma associated with things like OCD.
