Thanking you all for the replies.
Perhaps I was not very clear in my question. So here is the thing. My wife and her lawyer approached me for signing MCD when 1 yr of separation was not complete. I consulted my lawyer and he assured me he would take the date falling after 1 yr of separation from the judge. But my lawyer joined hands with my wife's side and he wihtdrew the petition immediately after filing it. Upon enquiring, my lawyer said judge pressurised him to withdraw the petition as it was premature due to incompletion of 1 yr of separation. But the word "premature" was not mentioned even once in the order passed by the judge on this petition. There are a lot of other events building upto these which makes me believe my wife doesnt want divorce and just wants to harass me.
I filed application in the court just 2 days before completion of 1 yr of separation stating I had no consent to withdraw the petition. The judge took the note and called the both parties for signing MCD one week later. Now first motion is completed.
Now there are two things. Either my wife would come after six months to sign the second motion which is very unlikely. Or my wife refuses to give divorce now. So my question is it technically correct to file cases on my wife after this first motion and withdraw them before the second motion if my wife agrees to give me the divorce.
Actually my wife has an ego of the size of the mountain and she just wants us to suffer more and more. I will share the complete story someday.
Thanks.