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Rohit Solanki (jaipur)     06 June 2011

help me

ashok falsely leads bikram to believe that certain land belongs to ashok,and thereby induces bikram to buy and pay for it.afterwards the land becomes the property of ashok and ashok seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that at the time of the sale, he had no title.can he be allowed to prove this want of title.



Learning

 1 Replies

Nirupom Dutta (advocate)     06 June 2011

He must not be allowed to prove his want of title. section 115 of INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT

 "ESTOPPEL" .


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