Mr. Prabhakar, I hereby answering your question to me, dated 13/02/10.
“The husband's desire is not only illegal but also unjustified”
- why mr prabhakar?
‘The said desire for a child is illegal’
– In what sense?
-Why it is illegal?
-Why it is unjustified?
As he is male, that’s why?
If the person was female then, it was legal, it was justified but as he is male, his all desire is unjustified, illegal?
· HMA Sec. 12. Voidable marriages. (1)Any marriage solemnized, whether before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be voidable and may be annulled by a decree of nullity on any of the following grounds, namely that the marriage has not been consummated owing to the impotence of the respondent ;
When a male is impotent, the wife has the right to annulled the marriage, while a woman is unable to be pregnant, while a man will not be allowed to annulled the marriage?
Impotence means, incapable of s*xual intercourse, often because of an inability to achieve or sustain an erection. When a woman is in similar position, why her spouse will not be allowed to annulled the marriage?
Before passing the Hindu Marriage Act, a male had the right to have a marriage during the lifetime of his wife/wives. HMA snatches this right of a Hindu male by virtue of,
HMA. Sec 5. Conditions for a Hindu marriage.- A marriage may be solemnized between any two Hindus, if the following conditions are fulfilled, namely:- (i) neither party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage;
read with
HMA Sec. 17. Punishment of bigamy.- Any marriage between two Hindus solemnized after the commencement of this Act is void if at the date of such marriage either party had a husband or wife living ; and the provisions of sections 494 and 495 of the Indian Penal (45 of 1860) Code shall apply accordingly.
How it is justified in the light of the above case of Mr Mohit?
If you or any other member have any logical & Justified answer – please post it for my knowledge, as well as others, like me.
· As you said “Such people should be discouraged from taking divorce” -
Why it is so?
Why he will be advised wrongly?
Why, he will be slave of her?
· As you said “If there is no ground for divorce, do not create a ground” - there is ground for divorce and ie, irretrievable break down of marriage. This ground was recommended as a sole ground for divorce at least twice, by Supreme Court, and the Government is still unable to answer the same. The answer is still awaiting for the public. I am sorry, you are unable to realize the ground.
If that person comes to us with a false story of cruelty, then what will we do? As he told truth, therefore he will be condemned? He will be blamed? Keep it mind that ‘truth is streinger than fiction’. If one is honest, he should tell the whole story how the males are deprived since Independence.
You said – “learn to respect women who cannot begotten children.” – I ignore your this particular advice. Because here it is not at all the issue that on the ground of issuelessness, a woman should be hateried or not on the contray it is the issue that how a legal service can be provided within the present act to a spouse. You please go through my previous postings of this thread, and find where woman is being hatread on her issuelessness. Your imagination is good. When logic fails, you started an imaginary issue of ‘women hate’.
Mr. Mohit posted again and again with this issue, which means his client’s spousal relationship irretrievably broken down, under this position it is best to have divorce. Otherwise it may be turn to any other complicated matter.
IT IS IMPOSSIBLE TO MAINTAIN A MARRIAGE FORCEFULLY. Legally speaking - The Hindu Marriage Act has no such intention. But in practice – it is doing so by keeping some questions unanswered.
· As you said “If any one aids to them, they are accomplices in civil (some times criminal) illegal activity”. You may bring a criminal case against me.
THANK YOU.