U/s 33-C(2)of the IDA 1947 there is no use of the term "Pre existing right" But this term is used regularly as a defence by the company and the PO of Labour Courts being whatever they are worth are merily dismissing such claims thereby forcing the workman to approach higher judiciary at the exhorbitant cost of time and money both. Will somebody explain how to counter this terminology as this phrase has crept in from some judgememnt and the lower judiciary is not inclined to use its intelligence to ascertain if the facts are similar (basic tennet of IOS) before relying on the judgement. If there are any case laws where "no pre-existing right" opinion of the lower judiciary has been over ruled with reason please be kind enough to share. Thanks in anticipation.