HI,
I am a married working woman and my husband is alcoholic. My husband is working and earning very high. I have two kids. We jointly own two properties - one bought by my husband, in which we are staying where he is the first owner. I have given all that I earned to my husband till few years back (approx 7 years). My contributions were not equal to his. I have taken breaks for child care when our children were born. I could not earn then and also had to take steps back in my career due to gaps. There have been no bank transfers as proofs. However, there are details of my bank accounts from where I have withdrawn money. But, due to my husbands alcoholic and womeniser nature, I stopped giving my money to him later. I wanted to start a small business and in order to save money I bought a small flat recently (3 years back) on loan, again jointly, I being the first owner. This time, every single contribution was done by me and all EMIs are paid by me. Now, I wish to sell this property and buy a new commercial one as I want to start a business. My husband is objecting for this. He wants me to sign papers and transfer the current property in which we are residing in his name. Please advise on how I can sell my property legally without falling trap to his blackmail. I also suspect that he is having an affiar and planning for separation. How can I get the rights of my children protected. Can I negotiate that I can transffer my share of property to the kids name? Is that possible?