Reading all the various posts have prompted me to ask one question.....what happens in the case the wife comes from a more financially strong family than the husband. The wife belongs to a fairly affluent family whose father has his own company and she works there. The husband is in service in another organisation. The divorce is by mutual consent however it has been initiated by the husband....in this case...how much can the wife actually claim from him? Would the court consider her strong financial background when granting alimony?
