S.304A of IPC reads - "Whoever causs the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act....."
Suppose the sentance would have been, "Whoever causes the death of any person by any rash or negliggent act...". Would the meaning differ?
Does the use of the word "doing" in the section has any significance?
Deekshitulu.V.S.R (B.Sc, B.L) 19 August 2009
yes Mr
One has to do a crime for being punished
So unless there is an act of "doing", there is no crime and intentions cannot be attributed
OK
You seem to have misunderstood the query.
Is there a difference in meaning of the two sentance mentioned in the query. One with the word "doing" and the other without the word "doing".
According to me both the sentance make sense. If both the sentance are making the same sense, then is not the word "doing" in the first sentance redundant?
According to me though both the sentance make sense, they may not be meaning the same. If that is so what is the difference in the meaning?
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