A sale agreement on 20 rs stamp paper was made in DEC 2014 by 70 year old lady to sell to another person. In that a clause was mentioned in writing stating that IN THE EVENT IF THE TENANTS DONT VACATE BY APR 2015 THEN THIS AGREEMENT STANDS CANCELLED and is counter signed by both the parties. There are 5 portions and she made a settlement deed for half portion to her daughter one year before the sale agreement. The buyer paid 15L so far but was delaying to register. The lady made another settlement deed for the other half also to her daughter in Oct 2015 and now the daughter is the full owner of the property.
The buyer is now insisting to sell the property or pay another 15L more as damages. When the daughter went to sign tenancy agreement with 3 tenants which have already expired 3 months back, the buyer who is also one of the tenants in this property for 5 years, has told the tenants not to sign the tenancy agreements. This buyer is the one who used to collect rents from the tenants and send to the womans bank account. Now he has collected the rents from the tenants and is not sending the money. Can the daughter make a police complaint to the police on all the tenants for occupying the portions illegally as she is the owner now. Will the daughter be compelled to sell the house by court as per the unregistered sale agreement made between the old lady and the buyer? The old lady is saying that she is unable to pay the advance to the buyer and is ready to go to jail if he files a case. She is 70 years and cant stand and walk properly also. What will be the view of the Judge. Since the property is not in the old lady name any more, can the daughter be compelled to sell on the old lady's behalf.