Hello Everybody!
My uncle has a property that he purchased in his wife's name. The property has three residential portions of which, two are rented and in one portion - his wife's brother and family stay. For the past fifteen years they stay there ..... but recently, my uncle has asked them to start depositing rent as their son is earning well.
Originally, the property's power of attorney was in his name (since my uncle is staying abroad) ... it's now removed (when they retired and decided to return back to India ... and now that his sons are grown up there's no need for POA).
Now, if my uncle decides to sell the house, or ask them to vacate to rent it to prospective tenants ... will there be any legal problems from them?
Can they claim ownership since they're staying there for 15+ years without rental agreement and stuff?
They are depositing rent for the last 4 - 5 months now .. in their name ... so in case there's a dispute ... can this prove they were paying rent?
Thanks a lot for clarifying.
Best Regards