When the laws are the same and the rules of the book are the same and to be strictly adhered to ... why do lower courts deny bail and higher courts grant bail.Is this a bailing game ? or I’m missing the BIG picture virtue of my limited knowledge.Seniors please advise.Why does an aggrieved always have to knock the doors of the higher courts irrespective of his innocence thereby increasing the already existing workload of the higher courts ?I Appreciate to be enlightened here and the logic behind the BIG picture.
Why is Quash procedure not allowed in the lower courts? what are the impediments ?
