Hi, My husband purchased a flat 2 years before marriage taking home loan. In that 2 years no principal amount was paid to the bank. He was only paying the interest. After marriage[ From past 6 years], I am also contributing to that home loan as I am also working. But there is no proof for that as home loan is in my husband's name. And my name is nowhere mentioned during registration as it was purchased before marriage.
Now the loan is getting completed. Husband say's he will gift the home to his parents. I don't have any right officially as it is in his name alone. There is no proof about my contribution to the home loan also. And my inlaws are claiming that it is purchased before marriage and they also have contributed to the property [which is not true] so it should belong to them.
So I just want to know what does the law says? Here flat is taken 2 years before marriage and home loan of it is completed 6 years after marriage. Will I have share on this property or not? MY husband or my inlaws are not ready to convert it as joint account and they dont my name to appear in any registaration paper. But I only need to contribute financially whithout any proof.
