Would this be a valid lease?
which section of the TPA would govern the following situation
If suppose A entered in to an indenture of lease with B for Property x and Property Y.
He has the title to Property x but not to Property Y.
A mentions in the indenture of lease that he will acquire Property Y and then provide it ....
What is the legal situation? and which section of the TPA would be govern such a situation... kindly reply at the earliesT!