A sale deed of a landed property has been executed in favor of A & B with a mention that the share of both parties is 1/2 of the total land, but it is not clear from the deed that which half belongs to A and which half belongs to B. After some time B executes a part of his share to A in which the boundaries are mentioned and by combining both deeds the exact portion of both the parties become clear in the original deed. Now A wants to mortgage his entire portion of land by way of deposit of title deed as security to obtain loan from a bank. A is in the possession of both the deeds. Does A has the right to create an equitable mortgage by executing the documents of mortgage alone and depositing both the title deeds.
