Husband said that he had sold the flat that was in his name but was the matrimonial house of both husband and wife also. she was thrown out of that house. she also paid for that house, record of cheques payment to husband by wife is there. He said he had sold that property and purchased another flat in some other place. Is it possible that the wife will get the share of matrimonial house property, where she also paid. Selling value is very as compared to the purchasing value of their matrimonial house.pl. give our inputs.
