yes in one of the threads i too read that the wife can claim the property of the husband. now i got confused too.
please clarify...
if a property is purchased by husband after the marriage and the couple is residing in the property, but later due to disputes the marriage breaks up, does the wife stand any right to have her share in the property where they have been residing.
can the wife file for divorce under grounds of cruelty and still claim for 50% of the property??