Hi lawyers,
First of all I would like to mention that I do not intend to offend/hurt-sentiments of any person either male or female with my question below, and I am asking this question purely for informational purposes that is related to a court case that is pending against me and I need this information to fight a false case filed against me by my wife.
Now to the question: I would like to know how the law in our country takes the cognizance of an allegation of non-consummation of marriage, one way I know is by the way of proving impotency of either partner within the marriage, but in cases where both the partners are mentally and physically fit for consummating the marriage and one of the partner is alleging the other partner of abstinence from s*x then how is this ground proven in the court.
Can it be legally accepted by way of virginity tests performed on a female in marriage as proof for non-consummation of marriage.
I have read in many places on internet that a women can not be a virgin and still have her virginity -- by way of the popular method of proving virginity -- intact. and that there are no fool proof ways to ascertain a female's virginity. so how does the law of our country take cognizance of facts like these
Also is there any reasonable period of time that a marriage must have lasted before one of the partner in marriage can claim non-consummation of marriage -- which is allegedly not owing to physical impotence of other partner -- as a valid ground for annulment of marriage
I once again re-affirm and request all people reading this to understand that I am asking the above question only due to the kind of situations I am facing in my case and I do not intend to hurt any persons sentiments by asking above question.
Thanks