Want your thoughts on a particular case of a couple married in Jan 2012. They have a boy who is 6 years old. There has been issues of incompatibility since beginning. Both are well educated. Wife is city bred and is a good position while the husband is from a town in TN but curretntly works in the IT company. Issue has been that husband has never been open in this relatioship which constant behavior of insecurity, possessiveness. He was not an active partner all through the pregnancy while the wife was left to handle all complications throughtout. After the birth of the child with certain congenital anomolies, the husband had not given the required emotional or financial support needed by both the wife and the son. Husband moved out of India when the boy was 3 years old. Till then he had not spent a single penny for the child. The wife was managing all expenses and provided for the child including school admissions in an international school. He has been a visiting father/husband since then. The wife and husband were not in a conjugal relationship since the pregnancy and continued till the boy turned 5. On the advise of the elders in the family and for the welfare of the child, they started living together during his annual visits to India. However, during the recent visit he engaged in marital rape, forcing himself on the wife much agaisnt her wish and also being doubtful about her character. He was behaving like a psycho - not letting her sleep after a long day at work and s*xually torturing her. Given these issues and the recent behavior of the husband, the wife has decided to separate. Yet to file for a divorce. Is there a possibility of denying the husband visitiation rights and full custody of the boy given that the husband lives abroad with a PR?