I purchased a house following all the legal clearance after verification of title documents, EC verification, etc. and it later came to light that the original property owner was issued a notice of freezing order on the property by some Govt. authorities. The Dept. has issued a notice of forfeiture after my purchase. As it is practically not possible to go to each and every dept. to find out abt such freezing orders, being a bona fide transferee, may I assume that the property in my possession would not be deprived through any legal process? Point to be noted is that the Dept. had not taken any steps to safeguard the property for which, is it fair to penalise an innocent person like me. The question of my recovering anything from the vendor does not arise as it is not known now abt his whereabouts. Is it not the responsibility of the Dept to issue a public notice to caution? How can a private notice to the vendor be treated as the basis for taking the critical date for the purpose of sale?
