A" is widow of X and have two children. Later on she marrried to B" who is brother of X" and have two more sons from the lions of B". B transfers some property to A" and now if she want to transfer to his children born out of lions of X. Can she do so? If she do so can childrens from the lions of B" can object as she acquired property from their father B"?
What if she acquired as coparcener?
In my Opinion she can transfer to anyone she desires as this property has become self acquired property and she can transfer.
This query I am posting for getting sure only.
