Hello Lead Lawyers,
My father has gifted his self acquired property stated by my father to me(Second wife's Son) recently but I anticipate issues will arise from his daughter's of first wife after his demise.
He has an agricultural land from his father by means of registered Contract deed in 1950's, which has got divided equally between his brother and himself. And based on which land is transferred onto my father's name absolutely.
The mentioned house was purchased on loan purchase for around twenty years(1960's) and the amount was very minimal around 1/4 th of his salary.
During his service, he used to receive income from abovesaid land, his salary and rents of self acquired house which he has not maintained proper accounting(bank statement).
1) Any income from above said land will be considered as Ancesteral ?
2) Is the income derived by selling a 1 acre will be ancesteral?
3) If any of the above incomes are ancesteral, how could I prove that if he was having Rs.100 in his hand from all the sources above only his salary was spent for loan?
4) Will it be needed to get a declartion..etc from my father any of that sort to prove it as self acquired!!
Please enligten me with the possiblities to restrict and safegaurd myself from obligations.
Thanks in Advance!!!
P.S:- Reposted as this topic falls under this Sub forum .
