My father-in-law has inherited a property(residential house) from his parents. He is the sole inheritor of the same. The propery is in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.
The property is rented out to a family since the past 20 years. There is no formal rental agreement between the parties. It is a mutual agreement that the tenant deposits a decided amount in the account of my father-in-law.
Recently my father-in-law retired and wanted to sell the property so that he can invest the money in Bangalore. My husband proposed to purchase the property from him(as in future he wants to settle in Jamshedpur). My father -in-law went to Jamshedpur and met the tenants and asked them to vacate the house within 3 months.The tenants expressed their interest in purchasing that property.
Question 1: Does the tenant have any right(s) to not vacate the property and claim that to be his own or ask compensation?
Question 2: Since my father-in-law is interested in selling the property to my husband. Is my father-in-law bound to sell it to the tenant? Can the tenant contest if it is sold to my husband?
Kindly suggest on what can be done
