Mr X sold a site to Mr Y via notorised GPA and affidavit in 1990. Mr Y executed sale deed to his wife on behalf of Mr X as a GPA representative in 1995. But in the sale deed there is no signature or thumb impression of Mr X.
from 1995 Mr X's wife is holding the property, paying taxes and have katha in her name till date
now my Question is can Mr X in any manner claim the rights of property.
Mr X is looking to sale the site in a illegal manner. does he hold any rights to sale the property. what should be the action taken by Mr Y in order to protect the property.
what is the minimum duration of possession of land in order to become absolute owner of land
Please help me
