Dear All,
Background:
I have given a loan to Mr. X by mortgaging the land from Mr. X and in the agreement it is clearly mentioned that if land owner fails to repay principle and interest within 1 years property belongs to me, however I have paid additional amount (in addition to int plus principle) to the land owner to match with current market rate for purchasing the same land and landlord accepted with additional compensation for selling the land to me.
Question:
I have already paid registration charges to tmregistrar at the time of mortgage, should I need to again pay stamp duty charges at the time of purchase again?
Question:
I am in foreign country on some work can my son do the sale formalities without my presence?
Kindly help me on those.
Thanks