Respected legal experts
I want to know whether a husband can divorce his wife for not involving in any s*xual activity with him for 1 year or more even though he had requested her multiple times and she is fully healthy physically and mentally. Consider the fact that the couple have a child and they have involved in s*xual activity in past but due to some other problem the wife is denying him the s*xual activity for 1 year and he is not interested in force s*x. Both the couple are in their mid twenties.
Can this be treated as a way of mental torture and can this be accepted as a ground for divorce?