My father has purchased a property of worth 40 L , in which my father has given 10 L net amount , and remaining 30 L was made into home loan , my father itself beared the registration costs too which was approx 3L .
Now, the 30 L home loan is given by bank , on name of my brother, and the property is also registered under name ofy brother itself, as the home loan is on his name , and at present he himself paying the loan .
My father said, when we sell the property, watever the amount i paid in net , i will get it back and remaining loan amount paid by brother will be his .IS THAT POSSIBLE ?
Do we need any proof to prove that my father paid the 10 L in cash ?
only proof we have is the cheque issued by the bank as home loan which is 30 L, and also my father has paid the amount 10 L ( 1L liquid cash, 9 L bank transaction) these transactions were made by my father's bank acocount to the property owner , will that serve as proof ?
what if tommorow , my brother turn plates and say that whole property is his ??? and he himself paid the whole amount and paying loan also ??
THE only reason my father did this is, as only my brother was eligible to get the home loan.
Pls let me know , can my father get back his amount spent on property ? are the bank transaction and home loan cheque evidences enough to prove he spent the money ??
