Dear sir, In 2002 i purchased a plot of land with an intention to build a building in it, at that time since there was a shortfall in the purchase amount my mother offered me her jewellery which was disposed off to get the requisite cash to buy the plot. bcoz of this gesture i by mistake put her name as the second holder in the deed and i being the first holder of the land. I had since returned the jewellery by purchasing in open market with my cash . The amount funded via sale of jewellery was 50000 rs against a property value of 3 lacs (the balance i had managed from my own resources ). I then got the plan sactioned and went on to build the building using my own resources. now i am planning to dispose of a portion of the property to generate cash and can i do as i am the first holder of the property . My mother has since changed colors over the years and does not want to sign on any documents. In all the documents of the house and land i am the first holder ( deed, plan etc ) my mother was not asked to put her signature or photo at the time of purchase of the plot in the title deed as she was a second holder of the property , only my signature is put in the title deed however her name is mentioned as the second holder. My question is , can i sell the property as a first holder of the property or do i need the signature of my mother ? is there any way where i can sell the property without taking consent from my mother ? Please note that the entire property has been funded by my own resources and i have repaid the small loan taken in lieu of her jewellery in the very next year by giving her cash to buy the same quantity of gold in grams which i disposed off with her consent. Pls give me sound legal advice to wriggle out this strange situation .
