Dear Experts,
One of my family friends is fighting in courts about the sale of a home (for decades!!!).
The original home was self-made (NOT inherited) by the owner. My family friend made an agreement for the purchase with an advance. Unfortunately before the actual registration of the sale, the owner died.
My family friend is claiming that he is the owner but the legal descendants are contesting with the arguments that the initial agreement is not binding on them.
This looks quite tricky.
Could some expert put the exact law position?
Regards,
Harsha Vardhana R
