Hi,
I have purchased a property which is already mortgaged to a Bank, by transferring the existing loan in my name. The bank is in possession of sale deeds dated 2010(current sale deed), 2005 and 2001 apart from other documents.
However, the sellers have given me xerox copies of a deed dated 1983 and also a partition deed dated 1974.
sale deed of 1983 is the parent deed of 2001.
Now, neither the bank nor the sellers are in possession of these 2 old deeds(1983 and 1974).
My first question is "How did the bank sanction loan to my seller without these documents?"
and secondly "Are these documents older than 12 years important?"
and finally "Is is sufficient to get a certified copy the same from sub-registrar's office?"
Awaiting your reply. Thanks.
