Hi My father wants to distribute his property between his 2 only Sons.
property 1 is around 2.00 Cr and the property 2 around 65 Lakh
Brother 1 and Brother 2 ; As they cant sell property worth 2.00 Cr. The brother 1 is suggesting to transfer the sales proceeds from his personal house worth around 70 Lakh and property 2 of fathers house as share to brother 2 and he keeps property 2.00 Cr with him.
Question: Is this an appropriate contact to sign /enter in agreement that market value /sales proceeds of the brother house (and not that brother pays Rs 70 lakh) and property 2 from father . The doubt is that it may sell below 70 lakh ...so the brother is compensated on lower side.
Please help in language drafting to avoid future complications
Many thanks & Best Regards
Gaurav
