A person "X" had some properties and died in 1960 without a will. X had 3 sons (S1, S2, S3 ) who split the properties among themselves in 1980. One of the sons (S1), writes a will that the property (which he got from his father X which was partitioned among his brothers in 1980) is to be given to his wife. Is this valid ? Can "S1" give this property to his wife (W1) on his death through a will ?
Also, S1 & W1 had 3 children (C1, C2, C3). Now that S1 has given his property to W1 after his death through his will, can W1 do anything with the property - for example, can W1 give the property to only one of their children, leaving out the other 2 ?
Thanks in advance...