I am a shopkeeper selling goods of various brands. Without my knowledge some of the goods I was selling were duplicate goods of reputed brands, though I have all the original bills of my purchases from other traders/shopkeepers. The company whose trademarks have been violated are trying to implicate me and several other shopkeepers based on a "john doe" type of court order. Am I liable in a situation like this, where I was merely selling what was sold to me by other traders/shopkeepers?
Rajat