My father sold his property got it from his brothers through family partition(grand father died before 1956) with mutual consent of all class 1 heirs and purchased new property and registered in my elder brothers favor. Now my elder brother saying it is his self acquired property. All my family members(My father, me and younger brother) are shocked by hearing his statement.
Please clarify us whether all class 1 heirs of my father has equal rights on the new property purchased with the help of inherited property money ?